Random CAPM/PMP Welcome to your Random CAPM/PMP 1. Project sponsors have the GREATEST influence on the scope, quality, time, and cost of the project during the: Concept phase. Close-down phase. Development phase. Execution phase. None 2. Which of the following assess someone's current engagement level in a project ? Stakeholder Register Power / Interest Grid Stakeholder Engagement matrix Salience Model None 3. The disorientation experienced by people who suddenly find themselves living and working in a different environment is known as: Sociocentrism Ethnocentrism Temporal shock. Culture shock. None 4. During project execution, PM/PMO monitors specific results to determine if they comply with relevant standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of inadequate result is : Manage quality Quality management Quality Control Quality planning None 5. When a project manager places a purchase order for a piece of equipment, it represents which of the following? Expense Cash out-flow Commitment Capital investment None 6. A generally accepted method to confirm accuracy of task progress is through: Probability vs. outcome. Maximum ceiling. Work breakdown structure. Earned value. None 7. Which of the following are frequently used tools in procurement planning? Make or buy analysis, contract type selection, and weighting system Expert judgement, audits, and bidders conferences Make or buy analysis, expert judgement, and contract type selection Contract type selection, bidders conferences, and expert judgement None 8. Which one of the following is FALSE about change management in a project ? The project manager should make all the effort to prevent unnecessary changes in the project. "Influencing the factors that effect change" means determining the source of changes and fixing the root causes The project manager should make the change happen as soon as possible to meet and exceed customer expectations. Whenever there is a change request, the project manager should evaluate the impact on project objectives such as scope, time, cost, quality, risk, resources, and other factors. None 9. As project manager, Henry is cognizant of the importance of effective communication, and he always makes sure that he has the proper physical mannerism, such as facial expressions, hand gestures, and body language, while conveying a message. He is also particularly observant to pitch and the tone of his voice, and he tries to receive comments and feedback from the receiver while communicating. What percentage of Henry's message is sent through nonverbal communication ? Approx. 10 percent to 20 percent No more than 30 percent More than 50 percent No more than 45 percent None 10. You have just taken control of a project in the middle of execution and need to learn who has approval authority for revisions in scope. Which document provides this information? Change control plan Client organization chart Resource assignment matrix Project charter None 11. The major processes of project communications management are: Communication requirements, information distribution, performance reporting, and administrative procedures. Communications planning, response planning, progress reporting, and information distribution. Communications planning, information distribution, performance reporting, and administrative closure. Communications planning, information distribution, schedule reporting, and stakeholder analysis. None 12. A Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 0.89 means : The project is getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested. At this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned When the project time is completed, we will have spent 89 percent more than planned. The project is progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned. None 13. At your project, EV = \$130,500 ; PV = \$125,000 ; and AC = \$129,000. Which one the following statement is true ? The project is ahead of schedule and under budget The project is behind schedule and over budget The project is ahead of schedule and over budget The project is behind schedule and under budget None 14. One way that the graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT) differs from the program evaluation and review technique (PERT) is that it: Uses object oriented programming techniques to allow resources histograms that are attached to the projects Gantt charts. Allows the relationships in the logic diagram to contain loops. Represents the project baseline chart in a superimposed fashion over both the logic diagram and the Gantt charts. Represents the duration of the project activities in a probabilistic fashion. None 15. A process is a series of actions to bring about a result. In a project, the five basic process groups (PG) are: Planning, checking, directing, monitoring, and recording. Planning, executing, monitoring, redirecting, and closing. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing. Planning, executing, directing, closing, and delivering. None 16. Which of the following is a KEY output of the Validate Scope process ? A more complete scope management plan An improved project management information system Customer acceptance of project deliverables Improved schedule estimates None 17. As part of the quality audit, the scope statement is checked against the work results to ensure the conformance to the customer requirements. The results should be documented and used for: Validating the quality process. Estimating future projects. Defining future project tasks. Changing the project scope. None 18. Effective stakeholder management includes all of the following project elements EXCEPT: Timely status information. Frequent cost reports. Scope change control. Clear requirements definition. None 19. You just identified a new external risk during the executing phase that may impact your project positively. What is your first step ? Implement a Risk Response Update the Risk Breakdown Structure Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis Develop a Risk Response and assign a Risk Owner None 20. A control chart helps the project manager : Explore a desired future outcome Focus on stimulating thinking Determine if a process is functioning within set limits Focus the most critical issues to improve quality None 21. Which of the following process group consists of the processes to complete the work defined in the project management plan and ultimately satisfies the project specifications and objectives ? Initiating process group Executing process group Planning process group Closing process group None 22. A contractor's deliverable has been delayed 30 days. The process of determining how this event will affect the project schedule is called risk: Assessment Identification Simulation Mitigation None 23. A project had a list of identified risks. This list was the risks register. Where can one find the high-level risk ? Project Charter Risk Management Plan Project Management plan Risk Register None 24. All of the following forms of power derivied from the project manager's position, EXCEPT : Expert Formal Reward Penalty None 25. What is the meaning of Perform Integrated Change Control Reviewing all change requests, approving changes, and managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan Applying agile principles to accommodate changes The process of preparing, updating and informing change log Inviting Change Control Board to evaluate, analyse, approve/reject change requests None 26. Elements of changing a project schedule include all of the following EXCEPT: Submit the appropriate change requests. Evaluate the impact of a change to the schedule. Adjust the project end date to the schedule variance. Obtain the appropriate levels of approval. None 27. Virtual team is a tool for which of the following processes ? Manage team Control resources Develop resource plan Acquire team None 28. Which of the following techniques is used to control the project schedule? Parametric modeling Performance measurement Statistical sampling Pareto diagram None 29. When it appears that a design error will interfere with meeting technical performance objectives, the PREFERRED response is to: Increase the specified value to set a new performance goal. Develop alternative solutions to the problem. Decrease the performance value to equal the assessed value. Reduce the overall technical complexity of the project. None 30. Which one of the following is NOT true about a cost reimbursable contract ? The buyers bears the most risk as total cost is unknown until the project is finished Buyers usually write a detailed statement of work. It requires auditing seller's invoices. The seller has only a moderate incentive to control cost None 31. The subprocesses of a project are linked by one subprocess providing an output that feeds one or more subprocesses as an input. Thus, subprocess are defined by PMI as having an input,________,, and an output. Process integration Formatting and creation Resolution and action Tools and techniques None 32. Which of the following is NOT a tool used to manage the stakeholder engagement ?Communication skills Ground Rules Interpersonal skills Communication skills Issue Log None 33. Which one of the following are the unapproved and undocumented changes and what occurs when to the scope are not detected early enough or are not managed ? Scope creeps Scope baseline Variances Residual Risks None 34. Which of the following is true regarding the project charter ? The project charter should be published under the name of the project manager. The project charter should be published under the name of the project champion The project charter should be published under the project sponsor's name The project charter should be published under the name of a manager external to the project. None 35. A project was estimated to cost \$1.5 million and scheduled to last six months. After three months, the earned value analysis shows the following: BCWP = \$650,000 BCWS = \$750,000 ACWP = \$800,000 What are the schedule and cost variances? SV= +\$100,000 / CV= +\$150,000 SV= -\$50,000 / CV= +\$150,000 SV= -\$100,000 / CV= -\$150,000 SV= +\$150,000 / CV= -\$100,000 None 36. Configuration management is a technique for: Scope planning. Integrated change control. Project plan execution. Risk quantification. None 37. Of the following conflict management approaches, which is believed to lead to the LEAST enduring positive results? Forcing Problem solving Compromise Avoidance None 38. Configuration management is any documented procedure used to apply technical administrative direction and surveillance to: Identify and document characteristics of a product or service Test new systems against. Control cost increases. Identify and correct problems arising in functional areas of project implementation. None 39. A controlling process is necessary in project management to ensure planned actions are executed and measured for progress. The controlling process for the schedule typically will focus on: Activities that vary from the plan, whether late or early. Activities only on the critical path. Activities starting earlier than scheduled. Activities starting later than scheduled. None 40. In what way does free float (FF) differ from total float (TF)? Free float is commonly referred to as slack time, whereas total float is commonly referred to as float time. Free float only affects the early start of any immediately following activities. Free float is the amount of total float that does not affect the end date, whereas total float is the accumulated amount of free float. There is no difference, the two terms are functionally equivalent. None 41. Your project is behind schedule due to conflict between team members. Having resolved the conflict, to get the project back on schedule, you should consider: Utilizing the critical chair resources. Performing resource leveling. Conducting reverse resource allocation scheduling. Crashing the schedule. None 42. All of the following should be done during the closing process group EXCEPT : Completed project deliverables are handed off to operations and maintenance. Final version of the lessons learned are compiled and made available for future projects. Formal sign-off and formal acceptance are received from the customers. Customer acceptance criteria are determined. None 43. You are asked by management to select a contract type that will obligate the seller to accept all liability for poor workmanship, engineering errors, and consequential damages in the project. Which of the following contact types will you select ? Time and material Cost plus incentive fee. Fixed price Purchase order None 44. Pareto analysis, cause and effect, and flow charts are all tools used in quality: Verification Benchmarking Planning Control None 45. One common way to compute estimate at completion (EAC) is to take the budget at completion (BAC) and : Multiply by SPI Divide by CPI Divide by SPI Multiply by CPI None 46. A KEY activity for achieving customer satisfaction is to define: Change control. The business use. Requirements Product specificity. None 47. If earned value (EV) = 350, actual cost (AC) = 400, planned value (PV) = 325, what is cost variance (CV) ? -50 400 -75 350 None 48. A project's approved budget is \$250,000 and planned budget to date is \$150,000. What will be the Schedule Variance when Schedule Performer Index is 0.8 ? -$30,000 $30,000 -$50,000 $50,000 None 49. You are managing a group of related or unrelated projects or programs and other work and achieve specific strategic business objectives and goals. You are a................ Project manager Program Manager Program owner Portfolio Manager None 50. A precise description of a deliverable is called a: Specification. Work package. Work breakdown structure element. Baseline. None 51. When should the Validate Scope process be done ? During the planning process At the beginning of the project At the end of the project At the end of each phase of the project None 52. All the following statements about change control are incorrect, EXCEPT : Changes seldom provide real benefits to the project. More detailed specifications eliminate the causes of changes. Contracts should include procedures to accommodate changes. A fixed price contract will minimize the need for change control. None 53. A project's payback period ends when: Cumulative revenue equals cumulative costs. Profit maximum is realized. Monthly revenue exceeds monthly costs. Unit profit is realized. None 54. To control the schedule, a project manager is reanalyzing the project to predict project duration. She does this by analyzing the sequence of activities with the LEAST amount of scheduling flexibility. What technique is she using ? Precedence diagramming Critical path method Work breakdown structure Flowchart None 55. Which document contains the information that describes how the formal verification and acceptance of the project deliverables will be contained ? Scope verification documents Scope Management Plan Communication management plan Statement of work None 56. Formal written correspondence with customer is required when : The project has cost overruns Defects are detected The project has a schedule slippage that includes changes to the critical path The customer requests additional work not covered under contract None 57. The objective of fast tracking a project is to: Increase productivity. Increase schedule tracking controls. Reduce project duration. Reduce project risks. None 58. All of the following assist in determining the impact of a scope change EXCEPT: Milestones Performance measurement. Project charter. Baseline None 59. Quality is : Adding extras to make the customer happy Meeting and exceeding the customer's expectations Conformance to management's objectives The degree to which the project meets requirements None 60. A project management professional can compare earned value performance data to all of the following project management tools EXCEPT: Forecasted final costs and schedule estimates. Critical path analysis. Technical performance metrics. Risk mitigation plans. None