PMP Quiz: Conflict Management

1. A team member consistently interrupts others during meetings, causing frustration. What should the project manager do first?

Reprimand the team member in the next meeting
Ignore the behavior if the work is still being completed
Speak privately with the team member to understand their perspective
Ask the team to vote on how to handle disruptions

Correct: Speaking privately addresses the conflict source without escalation and respects individual dignity.

2. During a planning session, two team members disagree on how to approach a task. What is the best action for the project manager?

Take sides with the more experienced team member
Postpone the discussion to maintain schedule
Facilitate a discussion to explore both perspectives and reach a consensus
Assign the task to an external consultant

Correct: Facilitating open discussion encourages collaboration and shared understanding.

3. A team member feels their ideas are being dismissed and begins withdrawing from team discussions. What conflict resolution strategy is most appropriate?

Force them to participate in meetings
Schedule a private discussion to acknowledge their concerns and seek solutions
Let the situation evolve naturally
Replace the team member with a more vocal contributor

Correct: One-on-one discussions help uncover underlying issues and restore trust.

4. What is the first step a project manager should take to establish a strong team foundation?

Begin assigning tasks based on job titles
Set a clear vision and mission for the project
Conduct a performance review
Send weekly reports

Correct: Establishing a shared vision and mission aligns the team toward common goals from the start.

5. A team member from a different culture interprets instructions differently. What should the project manager do?

Ask the member to adapt to the majority approach
Clarify the instructions repeatedly in writing only
Support their perspective and encourage open discussion of cultural differences
Reassign the team member

Correct: Supporting diverse experiences and perceptions helps build an inclusive and high-performing team.

6. Which of the following best represents servant leadership in a project environment?

Issuing commands to ensure deadlines are met
Delegating tasks and stepping back completely
Providing support and removing obstacles for the team
Focusing only on stakeholder satisfaction

Correct: Servant leadership emphasizes helping the team succeed by supporting and empowering them.

7. A team is in early stages of forming. Which leadership style is most suitable?

Delegative
Collaborative
Directive
Hands-off

Correct: Directive leadership helps provide structure and clarity during early team development.

8. A project manager wants to improve team motivation. What is the most effective approach?

Increase reporting requirements
Create a team charter and celebrate milestones
Enforce stricter deadlines
Focus on external stakeholder satisfaction

Correct: Team charters and recognition promote motivation and ownership.

9. Which of the following helps the project manager analyze stakeholder influence?

Stakeholder engagement matrix
Work Breakdown Structure
Ishikawa diagram
Product backlog

Correct: The stakeholder engagement matrix helps assess interest and influence for proper engagement.

10. Two stakeholders have opposing views on the project goal. How should the project manager lead effectively?

Choose the opinion of the higher-ranking stakeholder
Avoid engaging both parties until later
Facilitate a discussion to understand needs and explore compromises
Escalate the issue to the project sponsor immediately

Correct: Facilitating discussion helps align stakeholders and build mutual understanding.

11. A team member consistently meets deadlines but their deliverables lack quality. What should the project manager do?

Remove them from the project team
Conduct a performance review using relevant KPIs and offer support
Extend all future deadlines for the team
Ask another team member to redo their work

Correct: KPIs provide objective measures for performance, and support encourages improvement.

12. A junior developer shows interest in learning leadership skills. What is the best action the project manager can take?

Assign them only routine work to maintain efficiency
Encourage and assign a small leadership task with mentoring support
Postpone development opportunities until after project completion
Recommend external training without involvement in the project

Correct: Supporting growth by giving manageable responsibilities fosters development and motivation.

13. Which is the most effective feedback approach when a team member underperforms?

Criticize their actions publicly to send a message to others
Wait for the annual performance review
Deliver timely, specific, and constructive feedback privately
Send an email copy to the entire team outlining the issue

Correct: Constructive, private, and timely feedback is key to respectful performance management.

14. After providing coaching to a struggling team member, how should a project manager verify improvement?

Ask other team members if the person is doing better
Schedule a one-on-one review and compare results to KPIs
Assume improvement if no further complaints arise
Escalate the issue to the sponsor

Correct: Reviewing measurable KPIs ensures objective tracking of performance progress.

15. During team formation, how can a project manager best empower the team?

Assign roles based solely on seniority
Organize roles and tasks based on individual team strengths
Let team members randomly choose their tasks
Avoid assigning roles to promote flexibility

Correct: Organizing around strengths increases effectiveness and fosters empowerment.

16. A team member agrees to a deadline but misses it repeatedly. What should the project manager do?

Replace the team member immediately
Reassign the task to another person
Evaluate accountability, provide feedback, and seek root causes
Ignore the issue to avoid conflict

Correct: Addressing the issue through feedback and accountability supports improvement and trust.

17. How can a project manager promote accountability within the team?

Review tasks only at the end of the project
Support task ownership and provide regular check-ins
Avoid assigning names to specific tasks
Delegate all accountability to the sponsor

Correct: Ongoing support and clear task ownership help promote team accountability.

18. A stakeholder requests authority to make decisions on a specific work package. What should the project manager do?

Deny the request to maintain control
Evaluate if the stakeholder has the expertise and assign the appropriate level of decision-making authority
Allow full authority without assessment
Ask the team to vote on the decision

Correct: Delegating authority based on expertise empowers stakeholders and improves responsiveness.

19. A new tool will be used in the upcoming sprint. What should the project manager do first?

Wait to see if the team figures it out
Identify competencies needed and assess current team capabilities
Assign the task to a senior developer regardless of skill
Ask the sponsor to arrange training

Correct: Start by identifying the competency gap to plan effective training or support.

20. After identifying a training need, how should a project manager determine the best training option?

Choose the cheapest available option
Select a method based on urgency, learning style, and resource availability
Skip training and assign tasks immediately
Outsource all training decisions to HR

Correct: Effective training considers urgency, learning styles, and available resources.

21. What is the project manager’s responsibility when training is required for the team?

Ignore training requests and stay on schedule
Allocate appropriate resources, time, and budget for the training
Recommend self-study during off hours
Ask the team to handle it independently

Correct: It's the project manager’s role to ensure adequate resource allocation for effective training.

22. How can a project manager measure the effectiveness of a recent training program?

Ask if the team enjoyed it
Track improvements in task performance and compare with pre-training metrics
Conduct another training session
Ask the trainer to complete a feedback form

Correct: Performance data before and after training helps verify the outcome's effectiveness.

23. Before assigning project roles, what should the project manager do?

Assign based on availability only
Appraise stakeholders’ and team members’ skills
Assign based on organizational hierarchy
Wait for a sponsor’s suggestion

Correct: Skill appraisal ensures the right people are matched with the right tasks.

24. What is the best way for a project manager to determine resource needs for a new project?

Use the previous project’s staffing as a template
Deduce resource requirements based on project scope and deliverables
Let team members self-assign tasks
Ask the sponsor to provide a full team

Correct: Analyzing scope and deliverables allows the PM to determine what roles and resources are needed.

25. How should a project manager ensure the team continues to meet changing project needs?

Avoid making any changes mid-project
Continuously assess team skills and provide learning opportunities
Replace underperforming members without notice
Let functional managers monitor performance

Correct: Ongoing skills assessment and support ensure the team evolves with project demands.

26. A critical team member is preparing to leave mid-project. What should the project manager do?

Delay the project until the member returns
Ask the team member to complete all remaining tasks before leaving
Ensure knowledge transfer through documentation and mentoring before departure
Escalate to HR to prevent the departure

Correct: Documented knowledge transfer ensures continuity and reduces project disruption.

27. During a daily standup, a developer reports limited access to a critical system. What should the project manager do first?

Tell the developer to find a workaround
Identify the issue as a blocker and work to resolve it immediately
Ask the developer to raise the issue in writing
Ignore it if deadlines are not yet affected

Correct: Immediate identification and action on blockers keeps the team productive and avoids delays.

28. The team is facing multiple issues. How should the project manager address them effectively?

Address the easiest issues first
Prioritize based on impact to project progress and address the most critical ones
Focus only on stakeholder complaints
Escalate all issues to the steering committee

Correct: Prioritization based on impact ensures the most critical issues are resolved first.

29. A recurring infrastructure issue is blocking progress. What should the project manager do?

Use internal and external networks to escalate and resolve the issue
Inform the sponsor but take no action
Delay deliverables until it resolves itself
Ask the team to avoid using that infrastructure

Correct: Leveraging networks and influence helps remove persistent blockers efficiently.

30. After resolving a major blocker, what should the project manager do next?

Move on and monitor only if requested
Re-assess regularly to ensure no new or recurring blockers appear
Remove the team member who raised the issue
Avoid discussing the issue further to prevent panic

Correct: Continuous re-assessment ensures blockers are truly resolved and don’t reoccur.

31. Before entering a negotiation with a key vendor, what should the project manager do first?

Schedule the meeting and wait to see what the vendor offers
Analyze the negotiation boundaries such as budget, time, and quality constraints
Leave negotiations to legal and procurement only
Assume the vendor has the same goals

Correct: Understanding constraints and boundaries is essential for effective and realistic negotiation.

32. What must a project manager identify when preparing a negotiation strategy?

The number of people attending the meeting
The priorities and ultimate objectives of the agreement
A list of all previously failed negotiations
Who will take meeting minutes

Correct: Clarity on priorities and goals allows the PM to guide the negotiation toward acceptable outcomes.

33. How can a project manager verify that a project agreement is aligned with the project's goals?

Ensure legal terms are complex and comprehensive
Review the agreement against the project charter and objectives
Focus only on cost and schedule
Rely entirely on the procurement department

Correct: Agreements should be checked against the project goals to ensure alignment and success.

34. A sponsor asks the project manager to join contract negotiations with a supplier. What is the PM’s role?

Decline participation since it’s outside their role
Participate actively to represent project interests and constraints
Let the procurement team handle everything alone
Only provide approval after negotiation ends

Correct: The PM ensures agreements support the project's needs and constraints during negotiations.

35. Which is the most appropriate strategy for a collaborative negotiation with a critical stakeholder?

Win-lose
Avoidance
Win-win
Forcing

Correct: A win-win approach fosters collaboration and long-term stakeholder engagement.

36. A project manager is reviewing stakeholder expectations against the project objectives. What is the purpose of this?

To eliminate stakeholder concerns
To optimize alignment and reduce misunderstandings
To delay stakeholder involvement
To get approval for scope changes

Correct: Aligning stakeholder expectations with project objectives helps minimize conflict and builds shared understanding.

37. How should a project manager build trust with key stakeholders?

Share only final decisions without explaining the rationale
Act transparently and consistently, keeping them informed and involved
Avoid regular contact to reduce complaints
Delegate all communication to the project sponsor

Correct: Transparency, consistency, and engagement are key to building stakeholder trust.

38. Which approach best helps influence a stakeholder to support project objectives?

Use positional authority to demand support
Involve them in planning and listen to their concerns
Promise financial rewards regardless of outcomes
Minimize their role in the project

Correct: Involving stakeholders in planning and listening to them increases buy-in and influence.

39. A team is confused about a project requirement due to inconsistent information. What should the project manager do first?

Escalate the issue to the sponsor
Break down the situation to identify the root cause of the misunderstanding
Accept both versions to avoid conflict
Replace the team member who raised the issue

Correct: Identifying the root cause is critical to resolving misunderstandings effectively.

40. What is the benefit of surveying all involved parties when addressing a misunderstanding?

To find someone to blame
To ensure everyone agrees on one perspective
To gain input and reach a consensus among stakeholders
To defer the issue until later

Correct: Surveying all parties helps gain insight, promote inclusivity, and build consensus.

41. A misunderstanding between two departments has been resolved. What should the project manager do next?

Document the resolution and reinforce the agreed outcome
Reopen the discussion to explore new opinions
Assign blame and issue corrective actions
Ignore the situation and move on

Correct: Supporting and documenting agreed outcomes ensures clarity and prevents recurrence.

42. Which action shows proactive management of potential misunderstandings?

Investigate early signs of confusion among stakeholders
Wait until the issue escalates
Ignore informal feedback
Allow stakeholders to resolve the issue independently

Correct: Proactively investigating confusion helps resolve issues before they impact the project.

43. A virtual team member frequently misses stand-up meetings due to time zone differences. What should the project manager do?

Replace the team member
Ignore the issue if work is completed
Examine the team member’s environment and adjust meeting times if feasible
Ask other team members to update them later

Correct: Time zone and environment must be considered to support virtual collaboration effectively.

44. What is an effective way to improve virtual team engagement?

Schedule more frequent meetings regardless of team preferences
Investigate and implement communication tools suited to team needs
Require all team members to work local hours
Focus solely on individual work outcomes

Correct: Virtual teams benefit from tools tailored to their context and preferences.

45. A project manager introduces a collaboration platform for a distributed team. What should they do next?

Assume all team members are using it effectively
Continually evaluate the platform’s effectiveness and team engagement
Set mandatory login times
Limit use to documentation only

Correct: Effectiveness should be continuously monitored for virtual engagement tools.

46. Which of the following best supports engagement in culturally diverse virtual teams?

Use identical communication styles for all team members
Rotate team leads weekly to increase equality
Acknowledge cultural differences and tailor communication appropriately
Avoid discussing culture to prevent bias

Correct: Recognizing and adapting to cultural differences fosters better engagement and collaboration.

47. What is the main purpose of establishing team ground rules early in a project?

To control every team member's behavior in detail
To document disciplinary actions in advance
To define acceptable behavior and encourage accountability
To avoid having to manage conflicts later

Correct: c. Ground rules define acceptable behavior, build trust, and support team accountability.

48. A team member repeatedly arrives late to daily standups, violating the agreed ground rules. What should the project manager do?

Ignore the issue to maintain harmony
Remove the member from the team
Privately discuss the issue and reinforce ground rules
Publicly reprimand the team member

Correct: c. Address violations privately and professionally, reinforcing agreed team ground rules.

49. What best demonstrates team adherence to ground rules?

Minimal attendance in meetings
Team consistently meets deadlines and respects each other
Project manager constantly reminds team of rules
Rules are posted in the team room but not followed

Correct: b. Adherence is shown by behavior—respect, participation, and accountability—not just documentation.

50. A senior team member identifies that a junior analyst is struggling with stakeholder communication. What should the project manager do?

Reassign the analyst to a less demanding task
Ignore it, assuming it will improve over time
Encourage mentoring from the senior team member
Raise a formal performance issue

Correct: c. Recognizing and acting on mentoring opportunities supports growth and performance.

51. How can a project manager best demonstrate commitment to mentoring stakeholders?

Allocate time for mentoring activities in the schedule
Focus only on urgent project deliverables
Delegate mentoring to HR
Ask mentors to work overtime

Correct: a. Scheduling mentoring time shows leadership commitment to stakeholder development.

52. A project manager notices that a team member becomes defensive when receiving feedback. What is the best action to take?

Provide feedback publicly to ensure transparency
Avoid giving feedback to prevent conflict
Use emotional intelligence to adjust the approach and deliver feedback privately
Document the behavior and report to HR

Correct: c. Emotional intelligence means adapting communication to suit individuals' emotional needs.

53. How can a project manager apply personality indicators to promote team performance?

Assign tasks randomly to avoid favoritism
Adjust communication and leadership style based on team members' personality types
Treat all team members identically in every situation
Use personality indicators to remove low-performing members

Correct: b. Analyzing personality indicators helps tailor leadership to enhance team collaboration and performance.

54. What is the main reason for delivering value incrementally in a project?

To shorten the overall project duration
To reduce the number of deliverables
To enable early feedback and value realization
To limit stakeholder engagement

Correct: To enable early feedback and value realization. Incremental delivery allows stakeholders to experience benefits earlier and provide input sooner.

55. How can a project team ensure that they maintain focus on delivering business value?

By following the original plan strictly
By reassigning team roles regularly
By continuously validating deliverables against business value
By minimizing customer interaction

Correct: By continuously validating deliverables against business value. This ensures alignment with stakeholder goals throughout the project.

56. What technique best supports identifying the minimum viable product (MVP)?

Conducting earned value analysis
Decomposing features based on customer value
Measuring productivity metrics
Finalizing the full product scope upfront

Correct: Decomposing features based on customer value. This helps define the MVP by focusing on delivering the most valuable functionalities first.

57. What is the primary purpose of analyzing stakeholder communication needs?

To identify potential project risks
To select the right procurement strategy
To ensure the right information is delivered to the right stakeholders
To assign roles and responsibilities

Correct: To ensure the right information is delivered to the right stakeholders. Tailoring communication improves clarity and engagement.

58. Which of the following best describes an effective communication plan?

A static document created at the start of the project
A high-level overview of deliverables
A living document outlining channels, frequency, and responsibilities
A list of project stakeholders only

Correct: A living document outlining channels, frequency, and responsibilities. A communication plan should evolve as stakeholder needs change.

59. How can a project manager ensure that communication has been understood?

By repeating the message multiple times
By using complex terminology to sound professional
By requesting feedback and confirmation from stakeholders
By documenting the message in the lessons learned register

Correct: By requesting feedback and confirmation from stakeholders. Communication is only successful when it is received and clearly understood.

60. What is the purpose of risk prioritization in project management?

To assign team members to more tasks
To eliminate all risks before executing the project
To focus attention and resources on the most significant risks
To identify changes in stakeholder requirements

Correct: To focus attention and resources on the most significant risks. Risk prioritization helps allocate effort where it matters most.

61. What is a key feature of iterative risk assessment?

It is conducted only during project planning
It is used only for internal risks
It continues throughout the project lifecycle
It replaces the need for a risk register

Correct: It continues throughout the project lifecycle. Risks change over time and require ongoing assessment.

62. Which of the following is a quantitative risk analysis technique?

Stakeholder interviews
Probability and impact matrix
SWOT analysis
Expected Monetary Value (EMV)

Correct: Expected Monetary Value (EMV). EMV is a quantitative method used to calculate risk exposure in monetary terms.

63. A risk has a 25% probability of occurring and would result in a $40,000 loss. What is the Expected Monetary Value (EMV)?

$10,000
$15,000
$25,000
$30,000

Correct: $10,000. EMV = Probability (0.25) × Impact (40,000) = $10,000.

64. What should a project manager do after identifying a new high-impact risk during project execution?

Wait until the next project phase to take action
Update the project charter
Immediately assess the risk and implement a response plan if needed
Inform the legal department

Correct: Immediately assess the risk and implement a response plan if needed. Timely risk response can reduce impact or probability.

65. What is the primary purpose of using a Power/Interest Grid in stakeholder analysis?

To calculate stakeholder financial contribution
To assign stakeholders to specific work packages
To categorize stakeholders based on their influence and interest
To determine communication channel requirements

Correct: To categorize stakeholders based on their influence and interest. The Power/Interest Grid helps prioritize stakeholder engagement efforts.

66. Which of the following best describes the classification of stakeholders?

High cost vs. low cost
Supporters vs. critics
Internal vs. external, and based on interest and influence
Active vs. passive team members

Correct: Internal vs. external, and based on interest and influence. Stakeholders are categorized to tailor engagement strategies effectively.

67. After categorizing stakeholders, what should the project manager do next?

Develop and implement a tailored engagement strategy
Assign all stakeholders to the project team
Eliminate stakeholders with low influence
Invite all stakeholders to every meeting

Correct: Develop and implement a tailored engagement strategy. This ensures each stakeholder group is addressed appropriately.

68. Which tool is commonly used to validate the success of stakeholder engagement strategies?

Burn-down chart
Engagement matrix and feedback loops
Gantt chart
Communication management plan

Correct: Engagement matrix and feedback loops. These help assess stakeholder satisfaction and adapt strategies as needed.

69. Why is it important to develop a stakeholder engagement strategy early in the project?

To avoid having to conduct a risk analysis
To meet procurement deadlines
To align stakeholders with project objectives and gain support
To calculate the project float

Correct: To align stakeholders with project objectives and gain support. Early engagement helps manage expectations and reduce resistance.

70. What is the best approach to estimating budget during the planning phase?

Assign fixed percentages to each phase
Use analogous or bottom-up estimating based on project scope
Wait until execution to estimate
Ask sponsors for expected spend

Correct: Use analogous or bottom-up estimating based on project scope. These techniques provide accurate estimates tailored to project needs.

71. What document provides detailed information about how project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled?

Project scope statement
Risk register
Cost management plan
Procurement management plan

Correct: Cost management plan. This document outlines how costs are estimated, budgeted, managed, monitored, and controlled.

72. If the Earned Value (EV) is $40,000 and the Actual Cost (AC) is $50,000, what is the Cost Performance Index (CPI)?

0.8
1.25
1.0
0.9

Correct: 0.8. CPI = EV / AC = 40,000 / 50,000 = 0.8, indicating the project is over budget.

73. A project has a Planned Value (PV) of $60,000 and an Earned Value (EV) of $55,000. What is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?

1.09
0.92
1.0
0.83

Correct: 0.92. SPI = EV / PV = 55,000 / 60,000 = 0.92, which shows the project is behind schedule.

74. What does a CPI value less than 1.0 indicate?

The project is on budget
The project is ahead of schedule
The project is over budget
The project has no variance

Correct: The project is over budget. A CPI below 1.0 shows cost inefficiency.

75. During project execution, a manager identifies a consistent overspending trend. What is the best action?

Increase the scope to balance cost
Ignore the variation if schedule is on track
Review budget variance and initiate change control process if needed
Postpone deliverables to reduce cost

Correct: Review budget variance and initiate change control process if needed. Proper governance should be followed for adjustments.

76. What is the Estimate at Completion (EAC) if BAC = $100,000 and CPI = 0.8?

$80,000
$125,000
$120,000
$130,000

Correct: $125,000. EAC = BAC / CPI = 100,000 / 0.8 = 125,000.

77. What is a key responsibility when managing resources on a project?

Assign more people than required to reduce risks
Continuously monitor, acquire, and optimize resources to meet project needs
Outsource resource management to vendors
Avoid tracking team availability

Correct: Continuously monitor, acquire, and optimize resources to meet project needs. Effective resource management ensures project success.

78. What is the purpose of a critical path in project scheduling?

To list project risks
To identify the longest sequence of dependent activities that determine the project duration
To assign resources efficiently
To avoid change requests

Correct: The critical path is the longest path of dependent tasks and defines the shortest possible project duration.

79. What happens if an activity on the critical path is delayed by 3 days?

The project duration increases by 3 days
Other tasks will speed up
No impact if there’s float
The project finishes earlier

Correct: Any delay on the critical path directly impacts the project completion date.

80. Which technique is used to display activity dependencies and help identify the critical path?

Pareto chart
Ishikawa diagram
Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
Risk matrix

Correct: The Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) visualizes activity relationships and helps identify the critical path.

81. In an Agile environment, how is schedule progress typically measured?

By earned value
By completed deliverables against the sprint backlog
Using float analysis
With a responsibility assignment matrix

Correct: In Agile, progress is measured by completed deliverables and velocity against the sprint backlog.

82. What is the main benefit of using historical data when planning a schedule?

Avoids needing a baseline
Reduces the number of meetings
Improves estimation accuracy
Minimizes communication planning

Correct: Historical data improves estimation accuracy by using lessons learned and actual performance.

83. What type of dependency represents a logical relationship where a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor finishes?

Finish-to-Start
Start-to-Start
Finish-to-Finish
Start-to-Finish

Correct: Finish-to-Start is the most common dependency type, where a task must finish before the next one starts.

84. Which of the following would most likely require schedule rebaselining?

A stakeholder requests a weekly update
Actual durations differ significantly from planned durations
Team members request more coffee breaks
Project manager takes leave

Correct: Rebaselining may be required when actual durations or milestones deviate significantly from the original plan.

85. If Activity A takes 3 days and must finish before Activity B (5 days) and C (2 days) can start, what is the total duration assuming B and C are parallel?

10 days
8 days
5 days
3 days

Correct: 3 days for Activity A, then 5 days (longest of B and C). Total = 3 + 5 = 8 days.

86. A project has three paths: Path 1 (20 days), Path 2 (25 days), Path 3 (18 days). What is the project's critical path duration?

18 days
20 days
23 days
25 days

Correct: 25 days. The critical path is the longest path through the schedule network diagram.

87. In a hybrid project, what is a good practice for integrating schedule progress across Agile and Predictive components?

Ignore Agile components in the master schedule
Use story points only for all tasks
Create a milestone-driven integrated schedule that reflects both methods
Use Kanban for all predictive work

Correct: Create a milestone-driven integrated schedule that reflects both Agile and predictive delivery components.

88. What technique helps prioritize project requirements based on Must have, Should have, Could have, and Won’t have?

Pareto Analysis
MoSCoW
Kano Model
SWOT

Correct: MoSCoW is a prioritization method categorizing requirements into Must have, Should have, Could have, and Won’t have.

89. Which tool breaks down the total scope of work into manageable deliverables?

Network Diagram
WBS
Gantt Chart
Milestone List

Correct: The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) decomposes project scope into smaller, manageable components.

90. In a WBS, the smallest unit of work used for estimating and scheduling is called:

Task
Activity
Work package
Sprint

Correct: A work package is the lowest level in the WBS, used for planning, tracking, and managing project scope.

91. What document provides detailed information about each WBS element?

WBS Dictionary
Scope Statement
Risk Register
RACI Matrix

Correct: The WBS Dictionary includes detailed descriptions of each WBS component.

92. What is the primary goal of scope validation?

Prevent scope creep
Ensure deliverables meet requirements
Control change
Define scope boundaries

Correct: Scope validation ensures deliverables are accepted by the customer or sponsor as meeting requirements.

93. What is a key input to the Define Scope process?

Issue Log
Project Charter
Change Log
Resource Calendar

Correct: The project charter outlines high-level scope and objectives essential for defining detailed scope.

94. What Agile practice helps in refining and detailing backlog items?

Planning Poker
Grooming
Sprint Review
Stand-up

Correct: Grooming ensures backlog items are appropriately prioritized, clear, and ready for development.

95. What is scope creep?

Planned scope changes
Reduction in scope
Uncontrolled changes in scope
Approved scope expansion

Correct: Scope creep occurs when uncontrolled and unapproved changes are introduced to the project scope.

96. Which of the following is most useful in capturing stakeholder requirements?

Responsibility Matrix
Issue Log
Requirements Traceability Matrix
Burnup Chart

Correct: The RTM tracks and links stakeholder requirements throughout the project.

97. Who is responsible for monitoring and validating the scope throughout the project?

Sponsor
Product Owner
Project Manager
Functional Manager

Correct: The project manager ensures that the scope is monitored, validated, and aligned with objectives throughout the project.

98. What is the primary goal of planning for quality in project management?

To reduce overall project cost
To prevent scope creep
To ensure that project deliverables meet defined standards and requirements
To track project team productivity

Correct: Quality planning aims to ensure that deliverables conform to defined standards and stakeholder expectations, helping avoid rework and ensuring acceptance.

99. You discover that a critical deliverable has a quality defect that affects compliance with specifications. What should you do first?

Report the issue to the sponsor and request a new deadline
Ignore it because fixing it may delay the project
Perform root cause analysis and implement corrective actions
File a change request to remove the quality requirement

Correct: The first step is to analyze the root cause of the defects and take corrective actions. This ensures the issue is resolved properly and future occurrences are prevented.

100. Which quality management tool helps prioritize the most common sources of defects or problems?

Histogram
Control chart
Pareto chart
Scatter diagram

Correct: A Pareto chart is based on the 80/20 rule and helps identify and prioritize the most frequent causes of problems to focus improvement efforts efficiently.

101. In MoSCoW prioritization, which item type should be delivered only if time and resources permit?

Must have
Should have
Could have
Won’t have

Correct: "Could have" items are desirable but not essential and can be included if time and resources allow.

102. What is the purpose of backlog grooming?

To define the stakeholder communication plan
To refine and prioritize product backlog items
To assess the team’s performance
To create the WBS

Correct: Backlog grooming is used to clarify and prioritize backlog items for upcoming work.

103. Which of the following best describes a work package?

A summary task in the Gantt chart
The lowest level of a WBS
A project phase
A control account

Correct: A work package is the lowest WBS level used for cost and duration estimation.

104. What is included in a WBS dictionary?

Resource assignment and risk register
Definitions, deliverables, and acceptance criteria
Only budget details
Issue log and lessons learned

Correct: A WBS dictionary provides details like scope, deliverables, and success criteria for each element.

105. What tool is commonly used in Agile to manage visual work progress?

Kanban board
Ishikawa diagram
RACI matrix
Gantt chart

Correct: Kanban boards visualize work stages and help manage flow in Agile environments.

106. Which activity validates that the deliverables meet stakeholder expectations?

Perform Integrated Change Control
Control Scope
Validate Scope
Define Scope

Correct: Validate Scope involves formal acceptance of completed deliverables by the customer.

107. Which document outlines all features, functions, and constraints of a deliverable?

Requirements traceability matrix
Product scope description
Work performance report
Resource histogram

Correct: The product scope description defines the deliverable's characteristics and boundaries.

108. In Agile, who is responsible for prioritizing the product backlog?

Project manager
Product owner
Scrum master
Development team

Correct: The product owner is accountable for the product backlog and its prioritization.

109. Which technique helps prioritize features in Agile based on business value and urgency?

MoSCoW
Pareto chart
Ishikawa diagram
Monte Carlo simulation

Correct: MoSCoW prioritization helps Agile teams focus on features based on their value and necessity.

110. Which document ensures all requirements are delivered and validated?

Scope management plan
Change log
Requirements traceability matrix
Risk register

Correct: The requirements traceability matrix links requirements to deliverables to confirm they are met.

111. When analyzing consolidated plans, what should a project manager look for to ensure business value?

Critical path length
Budget surplus
Gaps and misalignments across phases
Number of work packages

Correct: Gaps and misalignments across phases. Identifying these helps ensure the plan maintains intended business value.

112. What is the best reason to analyze data collected from multiple planning areas?

To improve morale
To validate planning assumptions and make informed decisions
To finalize a schedule baseline
To avoid dealing with change requests

Correct: To validate planning assumptions and make informed decisions. Data analysis leads to reliable and accurate project decisions.

113. Which of the following would be most critical when identifying planning dependencies?

Team size
Order of tasks and deliverables
Meeting frequency
Number of stakeholders

Correct: Order of tasks and deliverables. Understanding task sequences is key for accurate planning and coordination.

114. Which document would most likely contain information requirements critical to decision-making?

Stakeholder register
Risk management plan
Communications management plan
Requirements traceability matrix

Correct: Communications management plan. It defines who needs what information, when, and how.

115. What is the best action to take after integrating all phase-level plans?

Conduct a planning closure meeting
Archive lessons learned
Validate alignment and seek approval from governance
Begin procurement activities

Correct: Validate alignment and seek approval from governance. This ensures the plan is authorized and ready for execution.

116. Why is it important to anticipate the need for change in project management?

To avoid involving the change control board
To respond proactively and maintain alignment with business goals
To reduce the project scope
To avoid documenting decisions

Correct: To respond proactively and maintain alignment with business goals. Anticipating change reduces disruption and keeps value delivery on track.

117. What is the purpose of having a defined strategy for managing project changes?

To escalate all decisions to the project sponsor
To ensure consistent handling of change requests
To avoid stakeholder involvement
To increase team size

Correct: To ensure consistent handling of change requests. A strategy helps standardize how change is assessed and implemented.

118. What does a well-executed change management strategy ensure during project delivery?

That no changes are introduced after planning
That only the project manager approves changes
That changes align with scope, schedule, and business objectives
That project costs always decrease

Correct: That changes align with scope, schedule, and business objectives. Proper change management ensures change supports the project’s success.

119. Which of the following is typically a step in the change management process?

Automatically approving team requests
Informal discussions instead of documented changes
Evaluating impact before implementing changes
Ignoring low-priority changes

Correct: Evaluating impact before implementing changes. This ensures decisions are based on facts, not assumptions.

120. A stakeholder submits a change request that may delay delivery. What is the project manager’s best next step?

Approve the change immediately
Reject the change to stay on schedule
Evaluate the impact and follow the change control process
Ask the team to decide

Correct: Evaluate the impact and follow the change control process. Proper evaluation ensures changes are assessed before action is taken.

121. What is the first step in planning procurement for a project?

Finalize the supplier contract
Define what goods and services are needed
Conduct a supplier audit
Create a change request

Correct: Define what goods and services are needed. Clearly identifying resource needs is the foundation of procurement planning.

122. Why is it important to clearly communicate resource requirements to suppliers?

To reduce procurement documentation
To ensure accurate and timely delivery of goods or services
To allow suppliers to modify the scope
To avoid involving legal teams

Correct: To ensure accurate and timely delivery of goods or services. Clear requirements prevent miscommunication and delays.

123. What is one key responsibility of a project manager during contract execution?

Allow scope changes without documentation
Manage supplier performance and ensure compliance
Ignore disputes until project closure
Modify legal terms unilaterally

Correct: Manage supplier performance and ensure compliance. This ensures that contract terms are met and project objectives supported.

124. What should a project manager consider when developing a procurement strategy?

The sponsor’s availability
The team’s past relationships with vendors
Contract type, risk allocation, and market conditions
Number of team meetings

Correct: Contract type, risk allocation, and market conditions. These shape how procurement is planned and executed.

125. What is typically part of a delivery solution in procurement planning?

Gantt chart of internal resources only
Procurement schedule, delivery milestones, and acceptance criteria
Lessons learned from unrelated projects
Stakeholder preferences only

Correct: Procurement schedule, delivery milestones, and acceptance criteria. These define how and when the deliverables will be completed and accepted.

126. What is the main purpose of defining requirements for managing project artifacts?

To minimize the need for stakeholder communication
To ensure the right people have timely access to accurate project information
To allow the team to focus only on technical tasks
To eliminate the need for document updates

Correct: To ensure the right people have timely access to accurate project information. Well-defined requirements ensure relevance, access, and traceability.

127. Why is version control important for project artifacts?

It reduces the amount of documentation required
It helps track changes and ensures stakeholders work with the latest information
It simplifies procurement activities
It allows archiving of all meetings

Correct: It helps track changes and ensures stakeholders work with the latest information. Version control prevents confusion and errors.

128. What is the best method to ensure stakeholders can access the latest project documents?

Store files on local computers
Share files through private email only
Use a shared repository with permissions and version control
Limit document access to the project manager

Correct: Use a shared repository with permissions and version control. This ensures documents are secure and up-to-date.

129. What should a project manager do if stakeholders report outdated artifacts are being referenced?

Instruct the team to ignore the complaint
Review and improve the artifact management system
Remove access to all documents
Stop updating the documents

Correct: Review and improve the artifact management system. This helps ensure the process is supporting project goals effectively.

130. How can the effectiveness of project artifact management be assessed?

By counting the number of stored documents
Through stakeholder feedback and artifact accessibility checks
By avoiding updates to reduce change
By locking all documents after approval

Correct: Through stakeholder feedback and artifact accessibility checks. These methods help evaluate whether the system is functioning as needed.

131. What is the primary factor when selecting a project methodology?

Availability of office space
Project needs, complexity, and magnitude
Preferred tools of the project manager
Number of stakeholders

Correct: Project needs, complexity, and magnitude. These elements drive the selection of an appropriate project approach.

132. When is a hybrid project methodology most appropriate?

When the sponsor wants minimal documentation
When some deliverables are well-defined and others are expected to evolve
When all team members are co-located
When the customer requires predictive reports only

Correct: When some deliverables are well-defined and others are expected to evolve. Hybrid models work best in mixed-certainty environments.

133. Which factor is most relevant when recommending a project execution strategy?

Size of the team’s workspace
Contract type, financing model, and risk sharing
Stakeholder personalities
Work breakdown structure format

Correct: Contract type, financing model, and risk sharing. These factors shape how the project is executed and controlled.

134. Which of the following best illustrates the use of incremental practices in project management?

Delivering the final product at the end of the project
Releasing working features in multiple stages
Waiting until closing to collect feedback
Creating one-time reports after execution

Correct: Releasing working features in multiple stages. Incremental practices provide early value and frequent feedback.

135. How can iterative practices improve project performance?

By avoiding team involvement in planning
By using repeated cycles to refine deliverables and decisions
By finalizing all requirements upfront
By delaying risk analysis until closeout

Correct: By using repeated cycles to refine deliverables and decisions. Iteration allows continuous learning and adjustment.

136. What is the primary reason for establishing a project governance structure?

To minimize documentation
To provide a clear decision-making framework and accountability
To avoid involving stakeholders in decisions
To reduce project communication

Correct: To provide a clear decision-making framework and accountability. Governance ensures control, compliance, and strategic alignment.

137. What should a project manager consider when aligning project governance with the organization’s structure?

The office layout
The existing roles, responsibilities, and approval mechanisms
The number of team members
The frequency of breaks

Correct: The existing roles, responsibilities, and approval mechanisms. These guide how project governance can replicate or align with the broader organization.

138. Why are escalation paths and thresholds defined in a governance plan?

To avoid change requests
To empower the sponsor to make all decisions
To ensure issues are resolved at the right level without delay
To remove stakeholder influence

Correct: To ensure issues are resolved at the right level without delay. Escalation paths provide clarity for resolving problems quickly and appropriately.

139. What does it indicate when a previously identified risk has occurred?

It is now an assumption
It becomes an issue that must be managed
It can be ignored if low impact
It remains in the risk register only

Correct: It becomes an issue that must be managed. Once a risk materializes, it is no longer hypothetical and requires action.

140. What is the best course of action when a critical issue threatens project success?

Wait until the next review meeting
Escalate immediately without any assessment
Analyze the issue and implement the optimal resolution
Informally ask the team to adjust

Correct: Analyze the issue and implement the optimal resolution. Addressing issues effectively supports project goals and continuity.

141. Why is collaboration with stakeholders essential in resolving project issues?

To delegate ownership of the project
To ensure their needs and expectations are considered in the resolution
To reduce the number of meetings
To transfer accountability to the sponsor

Correct: To ensure their needs and expectations are considered in the resolution. Involving stakeholders increases buy-in and effectiveness.

142. Why is discussing project responsibilities within the team important for knowledge transfer?

To ensure tasks are assigned only to senior members
To avoid creating formal documentation
To enable clarity and continuity if responsibilities shift
To reduce the need for onboarding new members

Correct: c. Discussing responsibilities ensures that all team members understand roles, which helps maintain continuity if changes occur.

143. What is one benefit of outlining expectations for the working environment?

It prevents scope changes
It creates a foundation for consistent behavior and communication
It reduces meeting frequency
It increases document access restrictions

Correct: b. Setting expectations helps build consistency and reduces misunderstandings, especially during team transitions.

144. What is the purpose of confirming a knowledge transfer approach?

To eliminate formal reporting processes
To ensure key information is shared and retained during transitions
To reduce project meetings
To increase risk tolerance

Correct: b. A structured knowledge transfer plan ensures continuity when team members change or the project moves phases.

145. Why is it important to define closure criteria during project planning?

To ensure the team completes work quickly
To make handover easier for the project sponsor
To clearly identify when project objectives have been met
To justify early project termination

Correct: c. Closure criteria confirm that deliverables meet requirements and that the project is complete.

146. What should be validated before transitioning a project to the operations team?

That the project sponsor has been promoted
That the team has moved to a new project
That all deliverables are accepted and support is in place
That lessons learned are optional

Correct: c. Transition readiness includes accepted deliverables, documentation, and operational support.

147. Which activity is typically performed during project closure?

Rewriting the charter
Creating the initial project plan
Documenting lessons learned and releasing resources
Onboarding new project team members

Correct: c. Closure includes documenting lessons learned, resolving contracts, and releasing project resources.

148. What is the first step in planning for project compliance?

Conduct a project audit
Confirm all compliance requirements
Review earned value performance
Interview project stakeholders

Correct: b. Identifying and confirming relevant compliance requirements is foundational to managing them.

149. What is the purpose of classifying compliance categories?

To align team members’ preferences
To simplify documentation review
To organize and prioritize regulatory, legal, and internal standards
To develop a project calendar

Correct: c. Classification helps organize different compliance needs and align control strategies accordingly.

150. What should a project manager do when identifying a potential threat to compliance?

Accept the risk without documentation
Record and evaluate the threat’s impact and likelihood
Transfer it immediately to legal
Informally address it with the team

Correct: b. Threats to compliance should be evaluated, documented, and handled through the risk or issue management process.

151. Which is a proactive method to support project compliance?

Reacting to violations after they occur
Avoiding documentation to reduce overhead
Providing compliance training and using audit checklists
Delegating all compliance issues to external counsel

Correct: c. Training and checklists are proactive ways to build compliance awareness and prevent violations.

152. What is the risk of failing to address compliance needs properly?

Delayed stakeholder feedback
Slight inefficiencies in workflow
Potential legal, financial, and reputational damage
Extra team meetings

Correct: c. Noncompliance may result in fines, lawsuits, contract violations, or brand damage.

153. What is the first step in ensuring project benefits are realized?

Assigning the sponsor as project manager
Investigating and identifying potential project benefits
Creating a procurement plan
Preparing the team’s vacation schedule

Correct: b. Benefits must first be identified and understood before they can be delivered or measured.

154. Why is it important to document ownership of benefit realization?

So the project manager can avoid responsibility
To ensure ongoing accountability after project closure
To increase stakeholder dissatisfaction
To reduce the number of reports

Correct: b. Ownership ensures someone is responsible for tracking and achieving the benefits after project handover.

155. What enables tracking of project benefits over time?

A schedule management baseline
A stakeholder engagement plan
A benefits measurement system
A procurement log

Correct: c. A measurement system with KPIs or metrics allows teams to assess value realization throughout and after the project.

156. How can a project manager demonstrate value delivery during the project?

By delaying benefits until the project is closed
By communicating incremental progress and early wins
By focusing only on internal milestones
By waiting for sponsors to track benefits

Correct: b. Regular updates on progress toward value help justify the project and engage stakeholders.

157. What is one benefit of informing stakeholders about value realization progress?

It eliminates the need for project audits
It improves stakeholder trust and engagement
It delays handover to operations
It reduces scope visibility

Correct: b. Keeping stakeholders informed strengthens relationships and increases their commitment to the project’s goals.

158. Why should a project manager monitor changes in the external business environment?

To track team morale
To identify opportunities and threats that may impact project scope
To update the quality checklist
To reduce stakeholder meetings

Correct: b. Monitoring external changes (e.g., regulations, tech, market shifts) helps adjust scope and manage risk proactively.

159. A new government regulation affects your product's compliance requirements. What should you do first?

Ignore it if the project is almost complete
Document the change and assess its impact on project scope and schedule
Delay action until a formal audit is conducted
Replace team members unfamiliar with regulations

Correct: b. Assessing the impact of external changes ensures proper risk and scope adjustment.

160. What should a project manager do after identifying that a new market trend affects customer expectations?

Cancel the project
Recommend updates to the backlog or scope with stakeholder input
Increase the budget automatically
Reassign the product owner

Correct: b. When customer needs shift due to external changes, the backlog or scope may need reprioritization.

161. What is the benefit of continual scanning of the external environment?

Reduces project cost automatically
Helps anticipate scope changes before they become urgent issues
Avoids team accountability
Guarantees change request approval

Correct: b. Proactive scanning reduces disruption by enabling early mitigation and scope adaptation.

162. After assessing a change in global trade policies, the team determines it may delay delivery by 2 months. What’s the next best step?

Escalate the issue to the steering committee with options for managing impact
Ask the team to work overtime without informing stakeholders
Update the lessons learned register
Replace team members responsible for planning

Correct: a. Major external risks impacting scope, cost, or schedule should be escalated with response options for decision-making.

163. Why is it important for a project manager to assess the organizational culture?

To adjust project goals to personal preferences
To tailor communication, engagement, and change strategies effectively
To eliminate all risk from the project
To allow teams to self-manage without oversight

Correct: b. Understanding culture helps a project manager align methods with stakeholder expectations and reduce resistance to change.

164. A major organizational restructure has been announced. What should the project manager do first?

Cancel the current project
Evaluate how the change affects project roles, resources, and deliverables
Submit an updated invoice
Notify all vendors to pause work

Correct: b. Understanding how the restructure affects the project is essential to maintaining alignment and continuity.

165. A project introduces new digital workflows across departments. What action should the project manager take?

Avoid discussing the changes to reduce resistance
Communicate and train stakeholders to ensure a smooth transition
Reassign project staff unfamiliar with digital tools
Postpone implementation until the organization reorganizes

Correct: b. Preparing the organization for impact by communicating and training supports adoption and benefit realization.

166. According to the PMI Code of Ethics, what should guide your decisions when facing a conflict of interest?

Company loyalty
Maximizing project profit
Honesty, transparency, and disclosure
The client’s informal request

Correct: c. The PMI Code of Ethics emphasizes honesty and transparency when handling conflicts of interest.

167. Which PMBOK 7 model helps understand how organizational factors affect projects?

Team Performance Model
Situational Leadership Model
Systems Thinking Model
Motivation-Hygiene Model

Correct: c. Systems Thinking is a model that views the project as part of a larger system and promotes holistic thinking.

168. Which method from PMBOK 7 is used to understand the flow of work and limit work in progress?

Critical Chain Method
Earned Value Analysis
Kanban
Delphi Technique

Correct: c. Kanban is a visual method that emphasizes limiting WIP and continuous flow.

169. Which PMBOK 7 performance domain focuses on stakeholder expectations and involvement?

Team Performance
Delivery
Stakeholders
Planning

Correct: c. The Stakeholders domain ensures continuous engagement to align expectations and outcomes.

170. Which of the 12 PMI project management principles emphasizes transparency and truthfulness?

Stewardship
Build quality into processes
Be a diligent, respectful, and caring steward
Demonstrate integrity and accountability

Correct: d. Integrity and accountability involve acting honestly and responsibly throughout the project.

171. Which Agile principle supports sustainable development and delivery?

Welcome changing requirements
Deliver working software frequently
Maintain a constant pace indefinitely
Simplicity is essential

Correct: c. Agile promotes a steady pace for sustainable, long-term performance.

172. What does the PMBOK 7 artifact “backlog” help manage?

Issue resolution
Risk exposure
Iterative delivery of value
Quality metrics

Correct: c. The backlog is used in Agile to manage evolving scope and prioritize delivery of value.

173. A Scrum team holds a daily stand-up. What is the primary benefit?

Assigns tasks
Promotes team alignment and early problem detection
Evaluates ROI
Escalates risks to executives

Correct: b. Daily stand-ups improve coordination and surface issues early.

174. Which Agile concept emphasizes customer involvement throughout the project?

Velocity tracking
Sprint retrospective
Continuous collaboration
Definition of done

Correct: c. Continuous collaboration with the customer ensures evolving needs are addressed.

175. What is the purpose of the “Value Delivery System” in PMBOK 7?

To track time and cost
To improve team velocity
To link strategy, portfolio, and project execution
To define roles and responsibilities

Correct: c. The Value Delivery System connects strategy and execution through portfolios, programs, and projects.

176. In Agile, what does the term “servant leadership” refer to?

Giving orders to the team
Enabling, supporting, and removing blockers for the team
Assigning daily tasks
Taking over the product owner role

Correct: b. A servant leader supports the team’s success by enabling collaboration and removing obstacles.

177. What is the principle behind tailoring in PMBOK 7?

Always use the same processes
Tailor project practices to fit the context and environment
Tailoring is not allowed for regulated projects
Tailoring is for Agile only

Correct: b. PMBOK 7 encourages tailoring practices to suit specific project characteristics and needs.

178. A project manager discovers that a vendor is bribing inspectors to avoid delays. What is the most ethical response?

Ignore it to stay on schedule
Report the behavior to appropriate authorities
Ask the vendor to reduce the bribe
Remove the inspector quietly

Correct: b. PMI’s Code of Ethics requires responsibility and acting to prevent unethical or illegal behavior.

179. What is an example of an output from a sprint retrospective?

Updated burn-up chart
A list of backlog features
Agreed-upon process improvements
Updated WBS dictionary

Correct: c. The sprint retrospective results in continuous improvement actions for the next sprint.

180. What does “Build quality into processes and deliverables” mean in PMBOK 7?

Perform quality checks only at the end
Ensure quality is considered from planning through delivery
Inspect quality only after delivery
Assign quality to the vendor

Correct: b. Quality should be embedded in all activities, not left for inspection at the end.